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Review Corner Archive
December 22, 2004
By Thao N. Tran, M.D.
Stony Brook University Hospital- SUNY
Division of Allergy & Clinical Immunology,
Karla Lowe, M.D., Walter Reed Medical Center; and
Todd Levin, M.D., University of Georgia
Chapter 33 of the 6th edition of Middleton’s Allergy Principles and Practice, edited by N.
Franklin Adkinson, et al.
Chapter 33: Aerobiology of
Outdoor Allergens
1. Which of the following best describes anemophilus plants and
their pollens?
a. Rely on insects to transfer pollen from one plant to another
b. Usually have large, sticky pollens
c. Flowers usually lack color, scent and nectar
d. Pollens are produced in small amounts, so low levels are
frequently clinically significant
2. Which of the following sampling devices is considered the sampler
of choice in documenting the prevalence of outdoor aeroallergens?
a. Andersen sampler
b. Hirst-type sampler
c. Cyclone sampler
d. Rotorod sampler
3. Which of the following best describes grass pollens?
a. The pollens are typically spheroidal and bicolpate.
b. The pollens are highly cross-reactive within and between
subfamilies.
c. A patient with a clinical history suggestive of grass allergy who
has negative skin tests to timothy grass and bluegrass will also
definitely be negative to Bermuda grass.
d. The pollen grain sizes of the different species of grasses range
from 20-110 micrometers.
4. Cypress pollens are described as:
a. Pollens that are large (>50 micrometers) and winged
b. Pollens that are less allergenic than pine pollens
c. Pollens with thick intines and stellate cytoplasmic contents
d. Pollens produced in small quantities
5. Which of the following tree pollens is best described by the
following description? Pollen grains are 30-45 micrometers, rounded,
triangular or polygonal, and triporate or tetraporate or periporate.
Pores are slightly aspidate or flattened conical and located on the
equator. The intine is thickened beneath the pores, forming a
lens-shaped oncus.
a. Poplar
b. Olive
c. Walnut
d. Maple
6. Which of the chenopods is the most important cause of “hay
fever”?
a. Rough pigweed
b. Annual saltbush
c. Lamb’s quarter
d. Russian thistle
7. Which of the following best describes ragweeds and their pollens?
a. The pollens are spheroidal and tricolpate with spines
b. The pollens are 20-30 micrometers in diameter with 3 furrows,
central pores, thick exine and no spine
c. Giant ragweed grows as high as 4 feet
d. Ragweed fails to grow well in disturbed sites
8. Alternaria, Penicillium and Aspergillus fumigatus belong to which
of the following phyla/group of fungi?
a. Ascomycota
b. Basidiomycota
c. Deuteromycetes
d. Zygomycota
9. Which of the following factors is MOST important for promoting
mold growth:
a. Lack of direct sunlight
b. Moisture
c. Presence of ground disturbance (such as jumping in a pile of
leaves)
d. Temperature between 18 and 32 degrees Celsius
10. Recoveries of which of the following fungal form species
increase with decreases in humidity and increases in air speed?
a. Cephalosporium
b. Cladosporium
c. Fusarium
d. Trichoderma
Answers
1. c, page 529
2. b, page 531
3. d, page 533
4. c, page 534
5. c, page 536
6. d, page 538
7. a, page 539
8. a, page 545
9. b, page 546-547
10. b, page 547
December 8, 2004
By Thao N. Tran, M.D.
Stony Brook University Hospital- SUNY
Division of Allergy & Clinical Immunology
Chapter 32 of the 6th edition of Middleton’s Allergy Principles and Practice, edited by N.
Franklin Adkinson, et al.
Chapter 32: Air Pollution: Indoor and Outdoor
1. This pollutant has been reported to have an impact on asthma:
a. Carbon Monoxide (CO)
b. SO2
c. Ultraviolet light (UV)
d. Lead
2. The U.S. Environmental Protection Agency has established standards
for ambient particulate matters (PM). In PM10, the subscript 10 stands
for:
a. The environmental level of PM in parts per million that is
considered a “moderate” level.
b. The environmental level of PM in parts per million that is
considered an “unhealthy” level.
c. The particulate matter’s aerodynamic diameters is > 10 microns.
d. The particulate matter’s aerodynamic diameter is < 10 microns.
3. Which of the following is true about environmental tobacco smoke (ETS)?
a. ETS is a major source of respirable particles in the outdoor
environment.
b. There is a clear link between ETS and the development of asthma and
atopy.
c. Exposure to ETS can be measured by urinary and salivary cotinine, a
metabolite of nicotine.
d. There are NO current data showing that exposure to ETS is linked to
an increased risk of asthma in exposed children.
4. Which of the following is correct about endotoxin and the
inflammatory cascade?
a. The initial receptor for lipopolysaccharides (LPS) derived from
gram-negative bacteria is toll-like receptor-4.
b. LPS can lead to an inflammatory response mainly through the
activation TLR-5 and the Nuclear Factor of Activated T-cells (NFAT)
pathway.
c. Phagocytic cells constitutively express CD14.
d. Soluble CD14 only interacts with cells that constitutively express
CD14 on their surface.
5. Evidence suggesting asthmatic subjects are more sensitive to the
effect of LPS than normal subjects include:
a. After allergen challenge, asthmatic allergic patients have
increased levels of sCD14 and LPS-binding protein in the airway
compared to normal subjects.
b. In asthmatic airway, LPS acts directly as a chemotactic factor for
eosinophils.
c. After LPS-challenge in asthmatic, there is a significant decrease
in FEV1, but no change in peripheral blood neutrophils or TNF-alpha
levels.
d. In vitro LPS stimulation of peripheral blood mononuclear cells
showed that normal subjects produced higher levels of IL-10 but
similar amounts of inflammatory cytokines (e.g., TNF, IL-8) as
compared to asthmatic subjects.
6. Patients with asthma should minimize outdoor exercise, particularly
when which of the following is elevated?
a. Ragweed pollen
b. Lead
c. PM > 10 microns
d. O3
7. Which of the following statements is most accurate about
bronchodilator therapy?
a. Bronchodilators have a significant effect on O3-induced changes on
lung function.
b. Atropine has NO effect on O3- induced airway resistance.
c. The most effective agent in reversing SO2-induced bronchospasm is
beta agonist.
d. Beta agonist does NOT protect against endotoxin-induced
bronchospasm.
8. Studies on air pollution and corticosteroid (CS) therapy showed:
a. CS significantly decreased 03-induced neutrophilic inflammation.
b. In asthmatic patients challenged with nebulized endotoxin,
pre-challenge treatment with fluticasone decreased expression of CD14
on airway monocytes and macrophages.
c. In asthmatic patients challenged with nebulized endotoxin, inhaled
fluticasone failed to blunt the neutrophilic response.
d. In patients exposed to diesel exhaust particles (DEP), inhaled
fluticasone significantly inhibited production of IgE and Th2
cytokines.
Answers
1. b, page 515
2. d, page 515
3. c, page 517
4. c, page 519
5. a, page 519
6. d, page 521
7. c, page 524
8. b, page 524
November 24, 2004
chapter 20 review of the 5th edition
of Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas
and Andrew H. Lichtman.
By Warner W. Carr, M.D.
Fellow-in-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Walter Reed Army Medical Center
1. The receptors for each of the following cytokines share the
common gamma chain except which one?
A. IL-2
B. IL-7
C. IL-9
D. IL-15
E. IL-5
2. Lack of a signal through which cytokine receptor accounts
for the lack of T cell maturation in X-linked SCID?
A. IL-2
B. IL-7
C. IL-9
D. IL-15
E. IL-5
3. Lack of a signal through which cytokine receptor accounts
for the lack of NK cell maturation in X-linked SCID?
A. IL-2
B. IL-7
C. IL-9
D. IL-15
E. IL-5
4. At what stage are B-cells arrested at in x-linked
agammaglobulinemia
A. Pro-B cell
B. Pre-B cell
C. Immature B cell
D. Mature B cell
5. All of the following are causes of hyper-IgM except?
A. CD40L deficiency on B cells
B. CD40 deficiency on B cells
C. AID defect (activation-induced cytidine deaminase gene)
D. CD40L deficiency on T cells
6. All of the following are features of x-linked
lymphoproliferation disease except?
A. Inability to eliminate EBV
B. Development of B cell tumors
C. Mutation in the gene encoding an adapter molecule that binds to
SLAM
D. ZAP-70 defect and selective loss of CD4+ cells
7. What is the most common immunoglobin defect?
A. IgG2 deficiency
B. Hyper-IgM
C. Selective IgA deficiency
D. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
8. The most common cause of chronic granulomatous disease is:
A. IL-12 receptor defect
B. phox47 mutation
C. phox91 mutation
D. IFN-gamma alpha chain defect
9. What HIV molecule specifically binds to CD4?
A. gp120
B. gp60
C. CXCR4
D. CXCR5
10. Tropism of HIV strains for T-cells and macrophages are
mediated by what co-receptors?
A. CXCR4 for T cells and CCR5 for macrophages
B. CXCR5 for T cells and CCR4 for macrophages
C. CCR4 for T cells and CXCR5 for macrophages
D. CCR5 for T cells and CXCR4 for macrophages
Answers
1. E, page 455
2. B, page 456, table 20-2
3. D, page 456
4. B, pages 455 and 457
5. A, page 459
6. D, page 460
7. C, page 458
8. C, pages 461-462
9. A, page 466
10. A, pages 466-467
November 10, 2004
Chapter 19 review of the 5th edition
of Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas
and Andrew H. Lichtman.
By Warner W. Carr, M.D.
Fellow-in-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Walter Reed Army Medical Center
1. What is an important feature of allergens when compared to
other antigens?
A. Allergens involve activation of the innate immune system.
B. Typically, response to allergens is after repeated exposure.
C. High levels of IL-12 and IL-18 are typical of allergen-induced
immune responses.
D. Polysaccharides frequently function as allergens.
2. Th2 cells promote class switching to IgE mainly through the
secretion of what?
A. IL-4
B. IL-6
C. IFN-gamma
D. IL-5
3. Many of the cell types involved in immediate
hypersensitivity (including the late phase) express what chemokine
receptors?
A. CCR4 and CCR8
B. CXCR5 and CXCR8
C. CCR7 and CXCR8
D. CCR3 and CCR1
4. All of the following are cell types typically capable of
binding IgE, except?
A. mast cells
B. basophils
C. eosinophils
D. neutrophils
5. What is the function of the alpha chain in the Fc epsilon
receptor?
A. Mediates signal transduction
B. Mediates binding to IgE
C. Serves as an inhibitory chain with intracellular ITIM’s to
down-regulate Th1 responses
D. There is no known function of this chain.
6. What is the effect that rising serum levels of IgE has on Fc
epsilon RI surface expression?
A. Fc epsilon RI expression is up-regulated with rising serum IgE
levels
B. Fc epsilon RI expression is down-regulated with rising serum IgE
levels
C. Fc epsilon RI expression is unaffected by rising serum IgE levels
D. Only Fc epsilon RII levels are affect by serum IgE levels
7. What is the main granule content difference between
connective tissue mast cells and mucosal mast cells?
A. There is no difference in the granule content.
B. Tissue mast cells contain PDG2.
C. Tissue mast cells contain tryptase as the major neutral protease.
D. Tissue mast cells contain chymase as the major neutral protease.
8. Which subset of mast cells is likely dependent on T cells
for development of phenotype in tissues?
A. Connective tissue
B. Mucosal
C. Both
D. Neither
9. What are the major developmental factors of mast cells,
basophils and eosinophils in order?
A. IL-4, stem cell factor, IL-5
B. IL-3, stem cell factor, IL-5
C. Stem cell factor, IL-3, IL-5
D. Stem cell factor, IL-5, IL-3
10. All of the following are chemoattractants of eosinophils
except?
A. C5a
B. PAF
C. LTB4
D. C4a
Answers
1. B, page 434
2. A, page 435
3. A, page 435
4. D, page 435
5. B, page 435
6. A, page 436
7. D, pages 436-437
8. B, pages 436-437
9. C, table 19-1, page 437
10. D, page 444
October 27, 2004
chapter 18 review of the 5th edition
of Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas
and Andrew H. Lichtman.
By Warner W. Carr, M.D.
Fellow-in-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Walter Reed Army Medical Center
1. IgM antibodies against cell surface or extracellular matrix
antigens are an example of what type of hypersensitivity?
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
2. Which of the following is correct regarding the mechanism of
antibody induced disease when directed to tissue antigens?
A. Antibodies may opsonize cells and activate complement.
B. Antibodies deposited in tissue recruit neutrophils and macrophages.
C. Antibodies bind to normal cellular receptors and interfere with
normal function.
D. All are correct.
3. A localized form of immune complex-mediated vasculitis is
called what?
A. Arthus reaction
B. Leukocytoclastic vasculitis
C. Serum sickness
D. Delayed type hypersensitivity
4. Deficiency of what factors is found in about 10 percent of
patients with SLE?
A. C9
B. IgG4
C. C2 or C4
D. DAF
5. All of the following are examples of disease mediated by
delayed-type hypersensitivity except?
A. Insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus
B. Pemphigus vulgaris
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Contact dermatitis
6. Autoimmune reactions initiated against one self antigen may
injure tissues with resultant alterations and release of other
antigens, and activation of lymphocytes specific for these antigens.
What is this phenomenon called?
A. Cross presentation, or cross priming
B. Epitope spreading
C. Somatic hypermutation
D. Alternate DNA splicing
7. Which HLA allele is associated with insulin-dependent
diabetes mellitus?
A. DR3
B. DR4
C. DR2
D. a and b are correct
E. a and c are correct
8. Which of the following diseases is associated with an HLA
class I allele?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
B. Ankylosing spondylitis
C. Multiple sclerosis
D. Pemphigus vulgaris
9. All of the following are examples of the role of infection
in autoimmunity except?
A. Killing of a self macrophage that is infected with listeria.
B. Induction of local innate immune response that result in break down
of T cell tolerance to self antigens.
C. In most cases the infectious microbe is not present in lesions and
may not even be detectable in the individual when autoimmunity
develops.
D. Molecular mimicry
10. Which of the following is an example of an anatomically
sequestered site for antigens?
A. heart
B. spleen
C. testes
D. skin
Answers
1. B, page 412, table 18-1
2. D, pages 412-414
3. A, page 417
4. C, page 418, box 18-1
5. B, pages 419-423, tables 18-4 & 18-2
6. B, page 424
7. D, page 427
8. B, pages 426-427
9. A, pages 428-429
10. C, page 430
October 13, 2004
chapter 17 review of the 5th edition
of Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas
and Andrew H. Lichtman.
By Warner W. Carr, M.D.
Fellow-in-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Walter Reed Army Medical Center
1. The principal mechanism of tumor immunity involves killing by
what cell type?
A. CD4 + t-cells
B. CD8+ CTLs
C. Macrophage
D. Polymorphonuclear cells (PMNs)
E. CD19 B-cells
2. Most tumors express only a few antigens that may be
recognized as non-self. Of those tumors that elicit a strong
immunologic response, what is a common factor?
A. Induced by oncogenic viruses
B. Induced by simple spontaneous mutation
C. Tumors that produce large quantities of self proteins
D. Anti-tumor specific antibodies specific to MHC
3. Which of the following is not a reason that immune responses
to tumors frequently fail to prevent the growth of tumors?
A. Many spontaneous tumors induce a weak or undetectable immune
responses.
B. Rapid growth and spread of tumors may overwhelm the capacity of the
immune system to eradicate tumor cells.
C. Many tumors have specialized mechanisms to evade host immune
responses.
D. Viral proteins are not considered foreign proteins and thus fail to
illicit an immune response.
4. Mutated cellular proteins are found most frequently in what
type of tumor?
A. Spontaneous renal cell carcinoma
B. Chemical carcinogen induced tumors
C. Spontaneous breast cancer in patients with a family history of
cancer
D. Spontaneous testicular cancer
5. Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is an example of what type of tumor
antigen?
A. Tumor antigen encoded by the genome of an oncogenic virus
B. Overexpression and abnormally expressed cellular protein
C. Oncofetal antigen
D. Product of a tumor suppressor gene
6. The principal mechanism of tumor immunity is killing of
tumor cells by what?
A. CD8+ CTL
B. Complement activation
C. Phagocytes
D. CD4+ T helper cells
E. Tumor-specific antibodies
7. All of the following are features of effective tumor killing
by NK cells except:
A. The loss of MHC I make the tumor cells good targets for NK cells.
B. CD16 binding of IgG helps to target tumor cells for NK cell
killing.
C. The tumorcidal capacity of NK cells is increased by IL-2.
D. Lymphokine-activated killer cells (LAK) are derived by culturing
peripheral blood cells with high doses of TNF-alpha.
8. All of the following are examples of evasion of immune
responses by tumors except:
A. Loss of expression of antigens that elicit immune response
B. Fas mediated killing of naive T cells by the tumor cells
C. Tumor cells may produce products that suppress the anti-tumor
immune response.
D. Tumor antigens may induce specific immunologic tolerance.
9. An important feature about high dose IL-2 therapy is what?
A. It is effective in inducing tumor regression in approximately 50
percent of patients with advanced melanoma and renal cell.
B. Its routine use is helpful in promoting bone marrow recovery.
C. It can be highly toxic and induces fever, pulmonary edema and
vascular shock.
D. It has good efficacy in increasing T cell numbers but has effect on
B cells or NK cells.
10. All of the following statements regarding immunotherapy for
tumors are correct except:
A. Vaccination with tumor cells or antigens may enhance immune
responses.
B. Vaccination with tumor cells that have been modified to express
high levels may enhance the immune response.
C. Administration of tumor-reactive T cells isolated from patients and
expanded by culture with growth factors is an example of passive
immunotherapy for tumors.
D. All of the above are correct.
Answers
1. B, page 400
2. A, pages 392-393
3. D, page 393
4. B, page 396
5. C, pages 393-400
6. A, pages 400-401
7. D, page 402
8. B, pages 402-403
9. C, page 406
10. D, pages 404-409
September 29, 2004
chapter 16 review of the 5th edition
of Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas
and Andrew H. Lichtman.
By Warner W. Carr, M.D.
Fellow-in-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Walter Reed Army Medical Center
and
Nathanael Horne, M.D.
Fellow-In-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Nassau University Medical Center
1. A graft transferred from one individual to that same individual
is called a:
a. syngeneic graft
b. xenogenic graft
c. allogenic graft
d. autologous graft (autograft)
2. Complement activation, endothelial damage, inflammation and
thrombosis are characteristic of:
a. acute rejection
b. hyperacute rejection
c. superhyperacute rejection
d. chronic rejection
3. Immunosuppressive drugs commonly used to treat graft
rejection include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. FK-506
b. 6-MP
c. cyclosporine
d. rapamycin
e. MMF (mycophenolate mofetil)
4. Methods used to reduce the likelihood of graft rejection
include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. HLA Matching for HLA-A, HLA-B, and HLA C
b. crossmatching
c. screening for preformed antibodies
d. ABO blood typing
5. All of the following statements regarding GVHD are correct
EXCEPT:
a. GVHD is the principal limitation to the success of BMT.
b. Acute GVHD is characterized by epithelial cell death.
c. Chronic GVHD is characterized by fibrosis and atrophy.
d. Elimination of T-cells from the marrow inoculum have increased the
success of engraftment.
6. What molecules are responsible for almost all strong
rejection reactions?
a. IgG
b. CD95
c. MHC
d. Natural antibodies
7. T cells are very important in the process of graft
rejection. First, which T cell population is most important in acute
allograft rejection by the process of DIRECT recognition, and, second,
which T cell population is most important in chronic allograft
rejection by the process of INDIRECT recognition?
a. CD8+ for direct and CD4+ for indirect
b. CD8+ for indirect and CD4+ for direct
c. Th2 for indirect and Th1 for direct
d. Th1 for indirect and Th2 for direct
8. Acute rejection typically occurs after what time interval?
a. minutes to hours
b. typically after one week
c. typically after 3 months
d. after long-term follow-up
9. Which ABO allele gene product is devoid of enzymatic
activity?
a. O
b. A
c. B
d. AB
10. Which immunosuppressive blocks lymphocyte proliferation by
inhibiting IL-2 signaling?
a. Cyclosporin
b. Azathioprine
c. Mycophenolate mofetil
d. Rapamycin
Answers
1. d, page 371
2. b, pages 378-381
3. b, pages 381-382
4. a, page 384
5. d, pages 387-388
6. c, page 371
7. a, page 375
8. b, pages 378-381
9. a, page 380, box 16-2
10. d, page 382 and table 16-1
September 15, 2004
chapter 15 review of the 5th edition
of Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas
and Andrew H. Lichtman.
By Warner W. Carr, M.D.
Fellow-in-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Walter Reed Army Medical Center
and
Nathanael Horne, M.D.
Fellow-In-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Nassau University Medical Center
1. Killing of extracellular bacteria is primarily mediated by:
a. complement activation
b. phagocytosis
c. inflammatory response
d. CTLs
e. a, b and c
2. All the following are properties of super antigens EXCEPT:
a. can be responsible for TSS
b. potent T cell mitogens
c. bind to V beta region of the TCR
d. uniform activation of T cells
e. can bind to MCH class II molecules without undergoing intracellular
processing
3. The innate immune response to intracellular bacteria
consists primarily of:
a. NK cells
b. antibodies
c. complement
d. phagocytes
e. a and d
4. Granulomatous inflammation is a hallmark of infection with:
a. viruses
b. fungi
c. extra cellular bacteria
d. intracellular bacteria
5. The adaptive immune response to viruses is mediated by:
a. CTL’s
b. antibodies
c. Type 1 IFN’s
d. NK cells
e. a and b
f. c and d
6. Which cytokine is the principal mediator of septic shock?
a. TNF-alpha
b. IFN-gamma
c. IL-1
d. IL-6
7. Which of the following is a powerful NK cell activating
cytokine?
a. IFN-gamma
b. IL-12
c. IL-2
d. TNF-alpha
8. Under the influence of IL-12, CD4+ T cells differentiate
into Th1 cells and secrete what cytokine that is a potent activator of
macrophages?
a. IFN-gamma
b. IL-12
c. IL-2
d. IL-4
9. Principal mechanisms of innate immunity to viruses are what?
a. CTL’s
b. antibodies
c. Type 1 IFN’s
d. NK cells
e. a and b
f. c and d
10. Each of the following represents a mechanism of immune
evasion by parasites except?
a. Antigenic variation
d. Acquired resistance to complement
c. Inhibition of host immune responses
d. Antigen shedding
e. Blockage of MHC synthesis
Answers
1. e, pages 346-348
2. d, page 350
3. e, page 351
4. d, page 352
5. e, pages 355-356
6. a, page 349
7. b, page 351
8. a, page 352 (see also box 15-2, page 354)
9. f, pages 355-356
10. e, page 362 (see also box15-3, page 358)
September 1,
2004
chapter 14 review of the 5th edition
of Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas
and Andrew H. Lichtman.
By Warner W. Carr, M.D.
Fellow-in-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Walter Reed Army Medical Center
and
Nathanael Horne, M.D.
Fellow-In-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Nassau University Medical Center
Questions
1. All of the following are true of antibody function EXCEPT:
a. IgA is responsible for mucosal immunity
b. IgM is responsible for neonatal immunity
c. IgG can opsonize antigens
d. IgG can activate compliment
e. IgM can activate compliment
f. IgE is responsible for ADCC involving eosinophils
2. All of the following statements regarding effector functions
of antibodies are true EXCEPT:
a. antibodies can block binding of microbes to cells and subsequent
cell infection
b. antibodies can bind to toxins, thus blocking their effect
c. most antibody effector functions are mediated by the FAB region of
the antibody
d. phagocytosis of antibody-bound antigens by mononuclear phagocytes
and neutrophils is mediated by cellular receptors for the IgG Fc
region
3. All the following are correct pairings of Fc receptors with
function EXCEPT:
a. FcgammaRI with phagocytosis, cell activation
b. FcgammaRIIA with phagocytosis, cell activation
c. FcgammaRIIIA with ADCC
d. FcepsilonRI with degranulation
e. FcgammaRIIIB with phagocytosis
f. FcgammaRIIB with activation of B-cells
4. All the following are correct pairings of Fc receptors with
their cellular distribution EXCEPT:
a. FcgammaRI with macrophages, B-cells
b. FcgammaRIIA with macrophages, neutrophils, eosinophils, platelets
c. FcgammaRIIIA with NK cells
d. FcepsilonRI with mast cells, basophils eosinophils
e. FcgammaRIIIB with neutrophils
f. FcgammaRIIB with B cells
5. All of the following are correct pairings of compliment
receptors and function EXCEPT:
a. CR1 with phagocytosis, immune complex clearance
b. CR2 with B cell activation, trapping of antigens in germinal
centers
c. CR3 with EBV receptor, leukocyte adhesion, phagocytosis
d. CR4 with phagocytosis
6. All of the following are correct pairings of compliment
deficiency and pathology EXCEPT:
a. C2 or C4 deficiency with SLE-like syndrome
b. deficiency in the terminal components of compliment with H. Influenzae infection
c. deficiency in the components of the alternative pathway of
compliment with pyogenic bacterial infections
d. C1 inhibitor deficiency with angioedema
7. The major stimuli for isotype switching during the process
of B cell activation are helper T cell-derived cytokines and what
molecule found on the activated T-cell surface?
a. CD25
b. CD28
c. CD40
d. CD40 ligand
8. In addition to IgG antibodies which one of the following
also serves as an opsonin?
a. C3b
b. C4a
c. IgD
d. C5a
9. Which of the following antibodies serves as the most
efficient opsonin for promoting phagocytosis?
a. IgA
b. IgM
c. IgG4
d. IgG1
10. Which chain of the Fc receptors binds to the Fc portion of
the immunoglobin molecule?
a. alpha chain
b. zeta chain
c. common gamma chain
d. beta chain
11. Place in order the CD designation and the receptor starting
with FcgammaRI, Fcgamma RII, FcgammaRIII, FcepsilonRII.
a. CD23, CD16, CD32, CD64
b. CD64, CD16, CD32, CD23
c. CD64, CD32, CD16, CD23
d. CD16, CD32, CD64, CD23
12. Which molecule stabilizes the C3 convertase on the
alternate complement pathway?
a. Properdin
b. Factor B
c. Factor I
d. DAF
13. Which of the following is a complement fragment serine
protease that functions as the active enzyme for the C3 and C5
convertases?
a. C2a
d. C3b
c. C4b
d. C5a
14. Place in order the CD designation for complement receptors
CR1, CR2, CR3, CR4.
a. CD21, CD35, CD11b/CD18, CD11c/CD18
b. CD35, CD21, CD11b/CD18, CD11c/CD18
c. CD11b/CD18, CD11c/CD18, CD21, CD35
d. CD35, CD21, CD11c/CD18, CD11b/CD18
15. Deficiency of which component results in paroxysmal
nocturnal hemoglobinuria?
a. CR2
d. Factor I
c. MCP
d. DAF
Answers
1. b, page 320
2. c, page 319-320
3. f, page 323-324
4. a, page 323-324
5. c, page 335
6. b, page 341
7. d, page 320 (See also chapter 9.)
8. a, page 321
9. d, page 322
10. a, page 323 (See box 14-1.)
11. c, page 322-324
12. a, page 328
13. a, page 331 (table 14-4)
14. b, page 335
15. d, page 338
August 18, 2004
chapter 13 review of the 5th edition
of Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas
and Andrew H. Lichtman.
By Warner W. Carr, M.D.
Fellow-in-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Walter Reed Army Medical Center
and
Nathanael Horne, M.D.
Fellow-In-Training, Allergy and Immunology
Nassau University Medical Center
1. Which of the following will NOT result in a second signal that
will influence CD8+ cells maturation to differentiated CTLs?
a. B7 on APCs
b. upregulation of costimulators on APCs by CD4+ cells
c. IL-2
d. IL-13
2. All of the following are characteristics of TH2 cells
EXCEPT:
a. Produce IL-4, IL-5, IL-13
b. CCR4 receptor expression
c. stimulate IgG2
d. stimulate IgG4
3. All of the following are characteristics of TH1 cells
EXCEPT:
a. stimulate IgG1
b. CXCR3, CCR5 expression
c. activate macrophages
d. IL-18R expression
4. All of the following effector functions are stimulated by
CD4+ cells EXCEPT:
a. neutrophil activation
b. IgG production
c. macrophage activation
d. eosinophil activation
5. All the following are true of activated macrophages EXCEPT:
a. produce ROIs
b. secrete TNF, IL-1, IFN-gamma
c. increase expression of B7
d. increase expression of MHC
6. T cell-mediated activation of phagocytes is dependent on
what cytokine?
a. Interferon gamma
b. IL-2
c. IL-12
d. TNF- alpha
7. Which of the following statements regarding cell-mediated
immune reactions is false?
a. Elicited by protein antigens of intracellular bacteria.
b. Elicited by soluble protein antigens that are administered with
adjuvants.
c. Elicited by soluble carbohydrate antigens that are administered
with adjuvants.
d. Elicited by intracellular viral proteins.
8. Which of the following cytokines is secreted by APCs and
stimulates differentiation of T cells?
a. IL-1
b. IL-6
c. TNF-alpha
d. IL-12
9. During early T-cell activation, which transcription factor
is critical for Th2 differentiation?
a. T bet
b. GATA-3
c. NF-kappa beta
d. AP-1
10. Which of the following represents the STAT that is
responsible for Th1 differentiation and Th2 differentiation in order
(Th1:Th2)?
a. STAT 4 : STAT 6
b. STAT 4 : STAT 2
c. STAT 6 : STAT 4
d. STAT 6 : STAT 2
Answers
1. d, page 302
2. c, page 304
3. a, page 304
4. d, page 307
5. b, page 312
6. a, page 299
7. c, page 300
8. d, page 302
9. b, page 305
10. a, pages 304-305 (and fig. 13-7)
August 4, 2004
chapter 12 review of the 5th edition
of Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas
and Andrew H. Lichtman.
By Warner W. Carr, M.D.
Fellow-in-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Walter Reed Army Medical Center
Nathanael Horne, M.D.
Allergy and Immunology
Nassau University Medical Center
Todd Funckhouse, M.D.
Fellow-In-Training, Allergy and Immunology
Walter Reed Army Medical Center
Washington, D.C.
1. All of the following statements regarding innate immunity are
true EXCEPT:
a. innate immunity generally recognizes molecular patterns made by
classes of microbes
b. components of innate immunity include complement, epithelia,
neutrophils, and macrophages
c. the receptors are encoded in the germline (i.e. not by somatic
recombination)
d. innate immunity’s imperfect discrimination between self and nonself
may lead to autoimmunity
2. Important receptors in innate immunity include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. mannose receptors
b. toll-like receptors
c. seven transmembrane alpha helical receptors
d. scavenger receptors
e. B7
3. All of the following statements about NK cells are true
EXCEPT:
a. they kill cells that have lost MCH class II receptors
b. they secrete interferon gamma
c. they recognize targets coated with FcgammaRIIIa (CD16)
d. they are stimulated by IL-12 and IL-15
4. Primary effector functions of macrophages result in all of
the following EXCEPT:
a. production of ROIs
b. enhanced antigen presentation
c. production of pentraxin
d. inflammation
e. tissue remodeling
5. All of the following statements regarding the complement
system are true EXCEPT:
a. the primary effect of C3a is inflammation
b. the primary effect of C5a is to initiate the formation of the MAC
c. the primary effect of C3b is opsonization
d. the lectin pathway and the alternative pathway cleave C3 on
activation
e. C1 recognizes IgM, IgG1 and IgG3 in the classical pathway
6. All of the following are features of Innate immunity except:
a. Distribution of receptors is nonclonal
b. Self and non-self discrimination
c. Receptor specificity and diversity are encoded in the germline
d. Specificity for structures shared by classes of microbes
e. May recognize nonmicrobial antigens
7. NK cells have inhibitory receptors that may keep them from
killing cell targets expressing adequate numbers of MHC class I
because:
a. Target cells secrete inhibitory cytokines that the NK cell
inhibitory receptor recognizes
b. The NK cell uses a protein tyrosine kinase to inhibit activation
signals that would normally kill the MHC I expressing target cell
c. The NK cell uses a protein tyrosine kinase to activate inhibitory
signals that prevent killing of the MHC I expressing target cell
d. The NK cell uses a protein tyrosine phosphatase to inhibit
activation signals that would normally kill the MHC I expressing
target cell
e. The NK cell uses a protein tyrosine phosphatase to activate
inhibitory signals that prevent killing of the MHC I expressing target
cell
8. Microbes that bind to phagocyte receptors and are ingested
are destroyed:
a. In phagosomes by reactive oxygen species and nitrogen intermediates
produced by inducible nitric oxide synthase
b. In lysosomes with containing enzymes like inducible nitric oxide
synthase
c. In phagolysosomes by reactive oxygen species and nitrogen
intermediates produced by inducible nitric oxide synthase
d. In the cell golgi complex by various proteases
e. In the cell proteosome by enzymes like inducible nitric oxide
synthase
9. With regards to B-1 cells all of the following are true
except:
a. Their antigen receptors are immunoglobulin molecules
b. The immunoglobulins that are produced have limited diversity when
compared to other B lymphocytes.
c. Immunoglobulins produced are IgG that are specific for
polysaccharides and lipids
d. Immunoglobulins produced are IgM that are specific for
polysaccharides and lipids
e. Also referred to as “natural antibodies”
10. Which of the following statements regarding leukocyte
recruitment below is true?
a. Integrins in the high affinity state mediate stable and firm
adhesion
b. Selectins in the high affinity state mediate stable and firm
adhesion
c. Mannose receptors in the high affinity state mediate stable and
firm adhesion
d. Toll-like receptors in the high affinity state mediate stable and
firm adhesion
e. Seven alpha-helical transmembrane receptors in the high affinity
state mediate stable and firm adhesion
Answers
1. d, pages 276-277, 279
2. e, pages 277, 279
3. a, pages 289
4. c, pages 288, 294
5. b, pages 293-294
6. e, pages 276-277
7. c, pages 289-293
8. c
9. c, page 279
10. a, page 281
July 21, 2004
chapter 11 review of the 5th edition
of Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas
and Andrew H.
Lichtman.
By Warner W. Carr, M.D.
Fellow-in-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Walter Reed Army Medical Center
and
Nathanael Horne, M.D.
Allergy and Immunology
Nassau University Medical Center
Match the following cytokines with their best match in terms of
characteristics
|
1. IL-4 |
a. stimulates IFN-gamma production from NK and T-cells,
promotes Th1 development |
|
2. Stem cell factor |
b. produced by T-cells, stimulates NK cells, potentiates
apoptosis in activated T-cells |
|
3. IL-2 |
c. inhibits proliferation and activation of lymphocytes,
stimulates IgA production |
|
4. TNF alpha |
d. stimulates Th2 pathway, IgE class switching, antagonizes
IFN gamma |
|
5. IL-8 |
e. induces pyrexia, and local inflammation, but not septic
shock |
|
6. TGF beta |
f. acts on bone marrow stromal cells to increase production of
leukocytes |
|
7. IL-5 |
g. induces neutrophil chemotaxis |
|
8. IL-1 |
h. induces pyrexia, local inflammation, and septic shock |
|
9. IL-12 |
i. stimulates B-cell and eosinophil proliferation |
|
10. Type I IFN |
j. binds to the protein product of c-kit, role in hematopoesis |
|
11. GM-CSF |
k. inhibits viral replication, stimulates Th1 pathway,
increases MHC Class I expression |
12. The major cellular source of TNF is
a. Activated mononuclear phagocytes
b. Dendritic cells
c. Antigen stimulated T cells
d. NK cells
e. Mast cells
13. JAK/STAT signaling pathway is used by all the following
cytokines, EXCEPT
a. IL-13
b. IL-10
c. IL-1
d. GM-CSF
e. IL-7
14. There are many similarities between many biological actions
of IL-1 and TNF alpha. Which of the following is a biological function
of TNF alpha, but not of IL-1.
a. Mediator of local inflammation
b. Fever
c. Synthesis of acute phase proteins
d. Apoptotic cell death
e. Metabolic wasting
15. Which of the chemokine receptor plays a major role in
neutrophil recruitment in sites of acute inflammation
a. CCR3
b. CCR5
c. IL-8L
d. CXCR3
e. CXCR5
16. Which of the following cell type produces the p40 component
of IL-12
a. Dendritic cell
b. T cell
c. NK cell
d. B cell
e. Keratinocyte
17. Which is the main cytokine that activate STAT4
a. IFN gamma
b. IL-4
c. IL-12
d. IL-10
e. IL-7
18. All of the following are biological actions of IL-4, EXCEPT
a. Suppression of macrophage-dependent reaction
b. Stimulation of B cell Ig heavy chain class switching to IgE isotype
c. Development of Th2 cells from CD4 T cells
d. Growth factor for mast cells
e. Stimulation of eosinophil mediated reaction
19. Patients with mutation of common gamma chain cytokine
receptor have a form of severe combined immunodeficiency. The impaired
maturation of T cells in these patients is primarily due to lack of
effect of which of the following cytokines.
a. IL-2
b. IL-4
c. IL-7
d. IL-9
e. IL-15
ANSWERS
1. d, pages 267-268
2. j, page 272
3. b, pages 265-266
4. h, pages 247-253
5. g, page 255
6. c, pages 269-270
7. i, page 268
8. e, pages 253-254
9. a, pages 255-260
10. k, page 270
11. f, page 273
12. a, page 247
13. c, page 248
14. d, page 254
15. c, page 256
16. a, page 257
17. c, page 257
18. d, page 267
19. c, pages 266, 455
July 7, 2004
chapter 10 review of the 5th edition
of Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas
and Andrew H.
Lichtman.
By Warner W. Carr, M.D.
Fellow-in-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Walter Reed Army Medical Center
and
Nathanael Horne, M.D.
Allergy and Immunology
Nassau University Medical Center
1. Which of the following do NOT favor the development of
tolerance to protein antigens:
a. high doses of antigen
b. prolonged exposure
c. high levels of costimulators
d. absence of adjuvants
e. antigens given by the oral or intravenous route as opposed to the
subcutaneous or intradermal route
2. Which of the following are NOT true regarding self-tolerance
in B-Lymphocytes:
a. occurs in the marrow and periphery
b. tolerance can be induced at the IgM+IgD- stage
c. not important for tolerance to lipid antigens
d. receptor editing is a potentially important mechanism of tolerance
3. All of the following are true regarding the mechanisms of
peripheral self-tolerance in B-Lymphocytes EXCEPT:
a. B-Cell migration into lymph nodes is blocked
b. CXCR5 increased
c. Syk not activated
d. intracellular calcium not sustainably increased in response to
stimulation
4. All of the following statements regarding apoptosis are true
EXCEPT:
a. death by neglect is synonymous with programmed cell death
b. Fas-FasL are involved in death by neglect
c. Mitochondria play an important role in death by neglect
d. The actions of the type 1 TNF receptor can mimic activation-induced
cell death
5. All of the following are important mechanisms or hypotheses
for immune system homeostasis EXCEPT:
a. network hypothesis
b. apoptosis
c. CTLA-4 expression in activated T-Cells
d. antibody feedback
e. oral tolerance
6. The principal mechanisms of lymphocyte tolerance include all
of the following except?
a. apoptotic death or deletion
b. functional inactivation without cell death or anergy
c. suppression of lymphocyte activation and effector functions by
regulatory lymphocytes
d. deletion of activated lymphocytes by effector cells of the innate
immune response
7. In peripheral T cell tolerance, what mechanism is believed
to be responsible for the elimination of T cells specific for abundant
peripheral self antigens, which are most likely to be the self
antigens that trigger repeated T cell activation?
a. Fas-mediated activation-induced cell death
b. Induction of regulatory T cells
c. Antigen recognition without costimulation
d. Negative selection of those cells with high affinity for self
antigens
8. At what stage of lymphocyte development are T cells and B
cells most sensitive to the induction of tolerance?
a. CD4+CD8+ and Immature B cell
b. CD4+CD8- and Immature B cell
c. CD4-CD8+ and Mature B cell
d. CD4+CD8+ and Mature B cell
9. During the development of clonal anergy what is the ligand
for CD28?
a. B7
d. CD40
c. Fas
d. CTLA-4
10. Which of the following statements regarding anergic T cells
is FALSE?
a. They fail to produce IL-2.
d. Upon TCR cross-linking there is no activation of the enzymes JNK
and ERK.
c. Ongoing generation of AP-1 still ensues but mRNA is rapidly
destroyed via caspases.
d. They fail to proliferate in response to antigen.
ANSWERS
1. c, page 233
2. c, page 234, 236
3. b, page 234
4. b, page 228-229
5. e, page 237-238
6. d, page 219
7. a, page 231
8. a, page 236, table 10-2
9. d, page 223
10. c, page 224
June 23, 2004
chapter 9 review of the 5th edition
of Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas
and Andrew H.
Lichtman.
By Warner W. Carr, M.D.
Fellow-in-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Walter Reed Army Medical Center
and
Nathanael Horne, M.D.
Allergy and Immunology
Nassau University Medical Center
1. Which of the following is a true statement regarding T Cell
dependent antibody responses?
a. T Cell dependent antibody responses are triggered by
polysaccharides.
b. T Cell dependent antibody responses are triggered by lipids.
c. T Cell dependent antibody responses are triggered by proteins.
d. T Cell dependent antibody responses can be mimicked by conjugate
vaccines.
2. All of the following play important roles in the
compliment-mediated increase in B-Cell activation EXCEPT:
a. CR3
b. Bound C3d
c. CD 19
d. CD 21
e. CD45RO
3. Which of the following statements regarding affinity
maturation is FALSE?
a. Can be triggered by protein antigens.
b. Affinity maturation is synonymous with “hypermutation” when used in
the context of B Cell development.
c. Activation-induced deaminase plays an important role in this
process.
d. FDCs do not play an important role in this process.
4. All of the following are likely to be important in antibody
feedback EXCEPT:
a. Fc gamma RIIB
b. ITIMS
c. ITAMS
d. SHIP
e. Increasing relative levels of IgG
5. All of the following are true of Memory B cells EXCEPT:
a. Can reside in the bone marrow.
b. Can reside in the lymph nodes.
c. Bear mutated antigen receptors more often than naïve B-Cells.
d. Bear isotype switched Ig’s more often than naïve B-Cells.
e. Develop independent of helper T-cell influence.
6. With regard to the secondary antibody response, which of the
following statements is false?
a. usually occurs in 1-3 days
b. peak antibody titer is larger
c. higher average affinity (affinity maturation)
d. induced by polysaccharide and protein immunogens
e. Low doses of antigen are needed to trigger this response and
adjuvants may not be needed.
7. The B cell receptor complex signals through what molecule?
a. IgM and IgD
d. Ig alpha and Ig beta
c. Zeta chain of CD3 complex
d. CD19
e. ITIM’s found on the cytoplasmic tail of CR2
8. What molecules compose the B cell coreceptor complex?
a. CR2,CD19, and CD81
b. TAPA-1, BLNK, and SLP-65
c. CR2, CD14, and CD19
d. CD19, CR2 and Ig (Ig alpha)
e. Ig alpha, Ig beta and CR2
9. During antigen-induced migration of B cells and Helper T
cells in the lymph node is mediated by up and down regulation of which
chemokine receptor?
a. CCR3
b. CXCR4
c. CCR5
d. CXCR5
e. CCR7
10. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. A single B cell that binds and endocytoses a protein may present
multiple different peptides complexed to class II MHC molecules to
different T cells, but the resultant antibody response remains
specific for the native protein.
b. A single B cell binds only a single antigenic determinant and
present to only T cells that are specific for the same antigenic
determinant.
c. With regards to hapten-carrier conjugates, T cells are activated by
epitopes found on the haptens and not the carrier proteins.
d. With regards to hapten-carrier conjugates, B cells bind to
components of the carrier proteins and present these same epitopes to
hapten specific T cells.
ANSWERS
1. c, page 190,210
2. e, page 195
3. d, page 208-210
4. c, page 213-214
5. e, page 210
6. d, page 191 (table 9-1)
7. d, page192 -195
8. a, page 195
9. e, page 198
10. Answer: a, page 200-201 (Hapten-specific B cells bind the
antigen through the hapten determinant, edocytose the hapten-carrier
conjugate, and present peptides derived from the carrier protein to
carrier-specific helper T cells. Thus, the two cooperating lymphocytes
recognize different epitopes of the same complex antigen. In fact, a
single B cell may present multiple different peptides complexed to
class II MHC molecules to different T cells, but the resultant
antibody response remains specific for the native protein.)
June 9, 2004
chapter 8 review of the 5th edition
of Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas
and Andrew H.
Lichtman.
By Warner W. Carr, M.D.
Fellow-in-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Walter Reed Army Medical Center
1. All of the following are costimulators found on T-Cells
EXCEPT:
a. CD28
b. ICOS
c. CLTA-4
d. PD-1
e. B-7
2. The most potent APC stimulators of naïve T-Cells are:
a. mature dendritic cells
b. B cells
c. macrophages
d. follicular dendritic cells
3. Which of the following is a true statement regarding
CD40-CD40L?
a. this interaction is observed only in T to B-Cell interactions
b. enhances the expression of B7 on APC’s
c. suppresses T-Cell activation
d. inhibits class switching in B-Cells
4. T-Cell activation involves all of the following pathways or
steps EXCEPT:
a. RAS- MAPK pathway
b. activation of Protein Kinase C
c. activation of NFAT
d. activation of Syk
5. All of the following are transcription factors involved in
the activation of T-Cells EXCEPT:
a. NF-kappa B
b. AP-1
c. NFAT
d. I kappa B
6. During T-cell signaling, in order for NF-kappa B to become
activated and translocate to the nucleus, its inhibitor, I kappa B
must be phosphorylated. Which molecule listed below modulates or
regulates this phosporylation of I kappa B?
a. BLINK 182
b. NEMO
c. Btk
d. ZAP-70
e. SUM 41
7. Which of the following is not true about ZAP-70?
a. Contains 2 conserved domains that can bind to phosphotyrosines
b. Is active prior to binding
c. Is activated by antigen recognition
d. Once activated, it can autophosphorylate itself
e. Is expressed on T lymphocytes and NK cells.
8. Which statement concerning antigen recognition,
proliferation and differentiation of T lymphocytes is incorrect?
a. IL-15 produced by antigen presenting cells stimulates the
proliferation fo CD4+ T cells, especially memory cells of the CD4+
subset.
b. After antigen recognition, activated t cells are often identified
by expression of newly synthesized surface markers, such as CD25.
c. Among the earliest detectable responses of T cells after antigen
recognition is the synthesis and secretion of IL-2
d. Differentiation into subsets of T lymphocytes allow immediate
effector mechanisms as well as the development of memory
e. The frequency of antigen specific T cells increases from 1 in
1,000,000 lymphocytes up to 1 in 10 after antigen recognition.
9. Activated T cells are often identified by the expression of
newly synthesized surface proteins. One such activation marker is:
a. the beta chain of the IL-2 receptor
b. the alpha chain of the IL-2 receptor
c. the alpha chain of the IL-12 receptor
d. the beta chain of the IL-12 receptor
e. none of the above is a marker of activation
10. T cell activation is characterized by the following early
membrane event after antigen recognition
a. Immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motifs (ITAMs) located on
CD3 and zeta chains are phosphorylated by Lck, a Src family tyrosine
kinase associated with the cytoplasmic tails of the TCR
b. One ZAP-70 molecule via the SH2 domains binds to two phosphorylated
tyrosines on one ITAM on the zeta chain
c. SHP-1 and SHP-2 are protein tyrosine phosphatases that remove the
phosphates from ZAP-70, thereby activating it
d. Phosphorylated tyrosines of LAT serve as docking sites for SH3
domains of other adapter proteins
e. CD45 has an intrinsic tyrosine phosphatase which dephosphorylates
Lck, thereby inactivating it
ANSWERS
1. e page 169-171
2. a page 171-172
3. b page 171
4. d page 179,182-183,194
5. d page 183-185
6. b page 185-186 box 8-4
7. b page 175-180 box 8-3
8. a pages 165-167.
9. b page 167
10. b page 175-180
May 26, 2004
chapter 7 review of the 5th edition
of Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas
and Andrew H.
Lichtman.
By Warner W. Carr, M.D.
Fellow-in-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Walter Reed Army Medical Center
1. What molecule is responsible for stimulating early
maturation of T and B cells, resulting in high mitotic activity and a
marked increase in cell numbers?
a. SCF
b. IL-8
c. IL-7
d. Antigen receptor
2. What molecule is responsible for stimulating developing T
and B cells, resulting in the proliferation of a specific clone?
a. SCF
b. IL-8
c. IL-7
d. Antigen receptor
3. What process accounts for the largest contribution to the
diversity of antigen receptors?
a. Junctional diversity
b. Combinatorial diversity
c. Somatic Hypermutation
d. Positive and Negative selection
4. Which of the following statements is FALSE?
a. RAG expression occurs with the recombination of the Ig heavy and
light chains during the Pro- and Pre-B cell stages
b. TdT expression occurs most abundantly during the recombination of
the Ig heavy chain
c. CD43 is a surface marker for developing B cells, but is not
expressed in B cells found in the periphery
d. Cytoplasmic (mu) chains are found in the Pro-B cell
e. Membrane IgD is found only on mature B cells
5. The process whereby an individual B cell can only express an
Ig heavy chain protein encoded by one of two inherited alleles is best
called:
a. negative selection
b. positive selection
c. cross presentation
d. allelic exclusion
e. isotype switching
6. Btk deficiency is associated with which of the following
human immunodeficiencies?
a. X-linked SCID
b. human autosomal SCID
c. X-linked agammaglobulinemia
d. Hyper IgM syndrome
7. In T cell maturation, which of the following combinations of
cell surface markers occurs first?
a. CD4+ CD8-
b. CD4- CD8-
c. CD4+ CD8+
d. CD4+ CD8+
8. If a T cell recognizes self antigen with high avidity during
maturation, which process may occur?
a. receptor editing
b. positive selection
c. allelic exclusion
d. negative selection
9. If a T cell recognizes self antigen with low avidity during
maturation, which process may occur?
a. receptor editing
b. positive selection
c. allelic exclusion
d. negative selection
10. Recombination between two segments of germline DNA occurs
during the production of TCR’s. This recombination only occurs if the
two segments are flanked by what structures?
a. One segment is flanked by a 12-nucleotide spacer and the other
flanked by a 23-nucleotide spacer
b One segment is flanked by a 6-nucleotide spacer and the other
flanked by a 9-nucleotide spacer
c. One segment is flanked by a 7-nucleotide spacer and the other
flanked by a 23-nucleotide spacer
d. One segment is flanked by a TATA box with polyadenylation to serve
as a binding site for RAG-1 and the other site is flanked by the
binding site for NEMO
ANSWERS
1. c, page 130
2. d, page 131
3. a, page 144
4. d, page 146.
5. d, Page 149
6. c, Page 132
7. b, Page 152
8. d, Page 156
9. b, page 156
10. a, pages 140-141.
May 12, 2004
chapter 6 review of the 5th edition
of Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas
and Andrew H.
Lichtman.
By Warner W. Carr, M.D.
Fellow-in-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Walter Reed Army Medical Center
1. Choose the specific functions of the following molecules in
order: TCR, CD3 complex, LFA1
a. Specific recognition, signal conduction, adhesion
b. Non-specific recognition, signal conduction, adhesion
c. Signal conduction, adhesion, non-specific recognition
d. Adhesion, specific recognition, signal conduction
2. What is the binding site for bacterial superantigens?
a. The fourth hypervariable region of the beta chain of the TCR
b. The third hypervariable region of the beta chain of the TCR
c. The second hypervariable region of the alpha chain of the TCR
d. The first hypervariable region of the alpha chain of the TCR
3. The immunoreceptor tyrosine-based activation motif (ITAM) is
composed of what sequence?
a. tyrosine-x-x-arginine
b. leucine-x-x-tyrosine
c. leucine-x-x-valine
d. tyrosine-x-x-leucine
4. The concept of two signals being required for activation of
the naive t-cell has been well established. In the case of T-cells,
binding of peptide-MHC complexes to the TCR provides signal one. What
is the principle receptor for delivering second signals for T cell
activation?
a. CTLA-4
b. CD40L
c. CD28
d. B7-1 (CD80)
5. P-selectin was first identified in the secretory granules of
platelets, hence the designation P. It has since been found in
secretory granules of endothelial cells. What are these called?
a. Cutaneous lymphocyte antigens
b. Weibel-Palade bodies
c. Very late activation molecules
d. Glycan-bearing cell adhesion molecules
6. Which of the following is a true statement regarding the T
Cell Receptor (TCR)?
a. Associated signal molecules include Ig-alpha and Ig-beta
b. Directly induces isotype switching
c. High affinity for its ligand when compared to the affinity of
surface immunoglobulin (Ig) for its ligand
d. It has three to four CDRs on each chain
e. Consists of heavy and light chains
7. Which of the following is a true statement regarding surface
bound immunoglobulin?
a. Three or four CDRs on each chain
b. Undergoes somatic mutations after activation
c. Low affinity for its ligand when compared to the TCR’s affinity for
its ligand
d. Consists of alpha and beta chains
e. Beta-2 integrins are a major ligand for surface bound
immunoglobulin
8. All of the following are examples of accessory molecules
closely associated with the TCR EXCEPT:
a. LFA-1
b. CD28
c. CD3
d. Zeta Peptide
e. B7
9. All of the following can add or subtract phosphorus or are
targets for phosphorylation EXCEPT:
a. Lck
b. Immunoreceptor tyrosine based activation motifs (ITAMS) in general
c. The cytoplasmic domain of the TCR molecule
d. The cytoplasmic domain of CD45
e. Zeta Peptide
f. Fyn
g. Zap-70
10. Which of the following is a FALSE statement regarding
selectins?
a. P-selectin is found on endothelium
b. E-selectin is found on endothelium
c. L-selectin is found on lymphocytes
d. L-selectin ligands include MadCAM-1, CD 34, and Sialyated Lewis X
e. L-selectin is involved in leukocyte rolling
11. Humans with the immunodeficiency disease ‘type 2 leukocyte
adhesion deficiency (LAD-2)’, lack expression of ligands for which of
the following?
a. L-selectin
b. E-selectin or P-selectin
c. GlyCAM-1
d. CLA-1
e. PSGL-1
12. In general, which T-Cell Receptor (TCR) beta chain
complementarity-determining region (CDR), is positioned over the
center of the MHC-associated peptide?
a. CDR1
b. CDR2
c. CDR3
d. CDR4
e. None of the above
13. All of the following are true of gamma delta T cells
except:
a. MHC restricted
b. Present in intestinal epithelium
c. The majority of T cells with this receptor do not express CD4.
d. The majority of T cells with this receptor do not express CD8.
e. This receptor associates with the same CD3 and zeta proteins as the
alpha beta receptors.
14. Which match is incorrect?
a. L-selectin on activated T cells
b. E-selectin on endothelial cells
c. LFA-1 on activated T cells
d. LFA-1 binds to ICAM-1
e. VCAM-1 on endothelial cells
15. Which statement is incorrect?
a. EBV causes production of IL-10 and inhibits macrophage activation
b. POX virus produces soluble INF-gamma receptors that bind INF-gamma
and inhibit effector cell activation
c. CMV increases antigen presentation by causing more MHC I molecules
on cell surface
d. HSV interferes with TAP transporter
e. Mycobacteria causes inhibition of phagolysosome fusion
ANSWERS
1. A, TCR, page 106
2. A, page 108
3. D, page 112
4. C, page 118
5. B, Weibel-Palade bodies, page 123
6. D, page 109
7. B, page109
8. E, pages 114-115
9. C, pages 112, 117, 118
10. D, pages 122-123
11. B, E-selectin or P-selectin
12. C, CDR3
13. A, MHC restricted
14. A
15. C
April 28, 2004
chapter 5 review of the 5th edition
of Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas
and Andrew H.
Lichtman.
By Warner W. Carr, M.D.
Fellow-in-Training, Allergy/Immunology
Walter Reed Army Medical Center
1. Both MHC I and MHC II peptides are assembled in the
endoplasmic reticulum with the aid of various chaperone proteins.
Since both of these are present at the same time, why do cytosolic
derived peptides only get “loaded” into the MCH I molecules?
a. The TAP monomer is closely associated with the MHC II molecules.
b. The TAP monomer is closely associated with the MHC I molecules.
c. The invariant chain trimer binds to the MCH II molecules.
d. The tapsin linker protein sits in the MCH II protein binding cleft
and is proteolytically removed in the MIIC vesicle.
2. What is the receptor that is involved in the binding of
microbial antigens to immature dendritic cells?
a. Toll-like receptor
b. Complement receptor
c. Sucrose receptor
d. Immunoglobulin receptor
e. Low-affinity IgE receptor
3. What is the common receptor between naïve T cells and
activated dendritic cells that bring these two cells types in close
proximity to each other in the T cell zone of lymph nodes?
a. CCR5
b. CXCR5
c. CCR7
d. IL-8
e. L-selectin
4. Dendritic cells are the most effective APC for the
initiating primary T cell responses for all of the following reasons,
EXCEPT:
a. Mature dendritic cells express costimulators.
b. Dendritic cells express inducible MHC class II molecule.
c. Dendritic cells are strategically located at the common site of
entry of microbes and foreign antigens.
d. Dendritic cells preferentially migrate to T cell zones of lymph
nodes.
e. Dendritic cells express receptors that enable them to capture
microbes.
5. Various chaperone and other proteins are involved in antigen
processing and presentation by MHC molecules. Which of the following
proteins are NOT involved in antigen presentation by MHC class II
molecule?
a. Invariant chain
b. Calnexin
c. Cathepsins
d. HLA-DM
e. TAP
6. The transport of processed peptides into the ER in an ATP
dependent fashion as part of the MHC Class I pathway is primarily
mediated by:
a. Invariant chain
b. Ubiqitin
c. TAP
d. ZAP-70
7. The process where an APC can present antigens from another
virus-infected or tumor cell to T cells is called:
a. cross presentation
b. homology
c. co-stimulation
d. MHC restriction
8. Professional APC’s include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. mononuclear phagocytes
b. B Lymphocytes
c. dendritic cells
d. follicular dendritic cells
9. Which of the following cell types show inducible (vs.
constitutive) expression of MHC class II molecules:
a. dendritic cells
b. macrophages
c. B cells
d. vascular Endothelial cells
10. Which of the following is one of the most potent inducers
of MHC Class II expression?
a. IL-2
b. IL-10
c. IFN-gamma
d. IL-5
ANSWERS
1. C
2. A, page 88
3. C, page89
4. B, page 86 table and page 90
5. E, pages 94-98
6. C, page 98
7. A, pages 90-91
8. D, page 85
9. B, page 86
10. C, page 87
April 14, 2004
chapter 4 review of the 5th edition
of Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas
and Andrew H.
Lichtman.
By Nathanael Horne, M.D.
Fellow-In-Training, Allergy and Immunology
Nassau University Medical Center
1. MHC Class I Genes include:
a. HLA A
b. HLA B
c. HLA C
d. HLA DR
e. a,b,and c
2. MCH Class II molecules are generally recognized by which
cells:
a. CD8+ Tcells
b. CD4+ Tcells
c. Erythrocytes
d. Neutrophils
3. The non-polymorphic portion of MCH molecule contain:
a. polymorphic regions for binding presented peptide sequences
b. binding sites for CD4+, CD8+ T-cells
c. the invariant chain
d. TAP
4. The location of the polymorphic residues on the MHC Class II
molecule
a. alpha-2 and beta-2 domains
b. alpha-1 and alpha-2 domains
c. alpha-1 and beta-1 domains
d. alpha-1 and beta-1 domains
e. beta-2 microglobulin
5. MHC Class I molecules accommodate peptide residues:
a. 8-11 resides
b. 10-30 residues
c. 60-80 residues
d. 3-4 residues
6. When full assembled the MHC class I molecules is composed of
what chains?
a. alpha and beta chains
b. delta and gamma chains with peptide
c. alpha and beta-2 microglobulin chains
d. alpha and beta-2 microglobulin chains with bound antigenic peptide
e. beta-pleated sheet supported by two parallel strands of alpha-helix
7. What is the binding site on the MHC molecule for the T cell
coreceptor CD8?
a. alpha-3 region
b. beta-2 region
c. alpha-1 and alpha-2 domains
d. beta-3 domain
e. alpha-1 and beta-1 domains
8. What is the binding site on the MHC molecule for the T cell
coreceptor CD4?
a. alpha-3 region
b. beta-2 region
c. alpha-1 and alpha-2 domains
d. beta-3 domain
e. alpha1 and beta-1 domains
9. When full assembled the MHC class II molecules is composed
of what chains?
a. alpha and beta chains
b. delta and gamma chains with peptide
c. alpha and beta-2 microglobulin chains
d. alpha and beta-2 microglobulin chains with bound antigenic peptide
e. beta-pleated sheet supported by two parallel strands of alpha-helix
10. MHC Class II molecules accommodate peptide residues:
a. 8-11 resides
b. 10-30 residues
c. 60-80 residues
d. 3-4 residues
11. What is the function of anchor residues?
a. Bind firmly to CD8 or CD4 coreceptors to increase TCR affinity.
b. Bind to either alpha or beta chains to maintain the overall
structure of the MHC molecule
c. They form the conserved regions that the TCR binds to upon antigen
presentation
d. Antigen peptide residues that bind to the alpha-helices and
beta-strands on the MHC securing the antigen peptide in the binding
groove
e. Serve as signal transducers upon antigen presentation and t cell
activation
12. With regards to T cell antigen recognition which of the
following is a true statement?
a. Amino acids from both the antigenic peptide and the MHC molecules
contribute to T cell antigen recognition
b. The MHC molecule is responsible for the fine specificity of antigen
recognition as well as MHC restriction of the T cells
c. Only the amino acids from the antigenic peptides are responsible
for T cell antigen recognition
d. The interaction of CD4 with the MHC class II molecule is
responsible for the fine specificity of antigen recognition
e. The fine specificity of antigen recognition is due to anchor
residues unique to MHC class II molecules
13. In humans, what chromosome are the MHC genes located on?
a. Short arm of chromosome 2
b. Short arm of chromosome 6
c. Chromosome 15
d. Chromosome 4
e. Chromosome 7
14. There are genes between the class I and class II clusters
that code for several proteins important to the immune system. These
genes are referred to as?
a. MHC-like genes
b. Immune response genes
c. MHC class III genes
d. Leukocyte trafficking genes
e. The cluster of differentiation
15. Several transcription factors that bind class II promoter
regions can increase the expression of MHC molecules. Mutations in
these transcription factors result in immunodeficiency disease
associated with defective expression of MHC molecules. Which syndrome
listed is the best studied of these disorders?
a. Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome
b. Ommen’s Syndrome
c. Bare lymphocyte Syndrome
d. common gamma chain deficiency
e. ZAP-70 deficiency
ANSWERS
1. e, pg. 69
2. a, pg. 69
3. b, pg. 69
4. c, pg. 70
5. a, pg. 70
6. d, pg. 71
7. a, pg. 70, table 4-1
8. b, pg. 70, table 4-1
9. a, pg. 72
10. b, pg. 72 and 74
11. d, pg. 75
12. a, pg. 75
13. b, pg. 76
14. c, pg. 76
15. c, pg. 79
April 1, 2004
Immunology Review Corner: chapter reviews of the 5th edition of
Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas and
Andrew H. Lichtman.
Chapter 3
1.All of the following statements about structural features of
immunoglobulin molecules are true EXCEPT
a. The most variable region is the CDR3
b. In human IgM and IgE antibodies, the C regions contain four tandem
Ig domains
c. The three hypervariable region of VL domain and three hypervariable
region of VH domain are brought together in three dimensional space to
form an antigen-binding surface
d. V region of the heavy chains mediate effector functions
e. There are no known differences in function between kappa containing
antibodies and lambda containing antibodies
2. At what state in B-cell development is cytoplasmic m (mu)
heavy chain first seen?
a. Stem cell
b. Pre-B cell
c. Immature B cell
d. Mature B cell
e. Antibody secreting cell
3. Antibody molecules can be divided into distinct classes
based on differences in the heavy chain constant regions. These
classes are called:
a. Allotypes
b. Isotypes
c. Idiotypes
d. Complementary determining regions
e. Phenotypes
4. What is the most commonly produced antibody in a healthy
adult on a daily basis?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgD
e. IgM
5. What is the most common type of antibody found in the serum?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgD
e. IgM
6. Which antibody functions predominantly in mucosal immunity?
a. IgA
b. IgE
c. IgG
d. IgD
e. IgM
7. Which antibody or antibodies function(s) as a naïve B cell
antigen receptor?
a. IgD
b. IgG
c. IgM
d. A and C
e. B and C
8. Effector mechanisms of humoral immunity include all of the
following EXCEPT:
a. alternative pathway of compliment
b. neutralizing toxins
c. opsonization of antigens
d. ADCC
e. immediate hypersensitivity
9. The cytoplasmic region of membrane bound antibody includes:
a. N-terminus
b. Fab
c. C-Terminus
d. disulfide bonds
e. hypervariable regions
10. The process by which B cells develop antibodies with
greater affinity to a previously recognized antigen:
a. memory
b. isotype switching
c. antibody repertoire
d. affinity maturation
11. The tissue distribution of antibody is determined by
a. heavy chain
b. light chain
c. Kappa chain
d. V regions
e. N-terminus
12. The most variable region of the antigen-binding site of
antibodies is known as:
a. CDR2
b. CDR3
c. CL
d. CH3
13. Humanized antibodies, in which DNA segments encoding the
antigen-binding sites from a murine monoclonal antibody are ‘spliced’
into cDNA encoding a human myeloma protein, are designed to try to
circumvent what problem?
a. Production of human anti-mouse antibody (HAMA)
b. Production of anti-idiotype antibody
c. Decreased murine antibody Fc effector functions in humans
d. Decreased serum half-life of murine antibody in humans
e. None of the above
14. All of the following are features of antigen binding by TCR
molecules EXCEPT:
a. Binds linear determinants of peptides only
b. Binds linear determinants of peptides and other macromolecules
c. Binds conformational determinants of peptides only
d. Binds conformational determinants of peptides and other
macromolecules
e. None of the above
15. All of the following are members of the immoglobulin
Superfamily EXCEPT:
a. IgG
b. Class II MHC
c. B7-1/B7-2
d. IL-1R
e. IL-2R
16. The serum half-life of IgE is:
a. 2 days
b. 5 days
c. 6 days
d. 23 days
e. 35 days
17. Cleavage products from rabbit IgG digestion with Papain
are:
a. F(ab’)2 and various peptide fragments
b. F(ab’)2 and one Fc fragment
c. Two Fab fragments and various peptide fragments
d. Two Fab fragments and one Fc fragment
e. Rabbit IgG is completely digested into various small peptide
fragments
ANSWERS:
1. D pg 52-55
2. B pg 58 figure
3. B pg 54 box
4. A pg 44
5. C pg 44
6. A pg 53
7. D pg 53
8. A pg 43-44
9. C pg 48
10. D pg 62
11. A pg 63
12. B pg 49-50
13. A pg 45-47
14. A pg 44
15. E pg 50-51
16. A pg 52-53
17. D pg 55-57
March 17, 2004
chapter reviews of the 5th edition of
Cellular and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas and
Andrew H. Lichtman.
Chapter 2 ACAAI BRC
1. Which cell type is responsible for two defining
characteristics of the adaptive immune response, specificity and
memory?
a. Dendritic cell
b. Langerhans cell
c. Lymphocyte
d. Neutrophil
e. High endothelial cells
2. Which of the following is the major antigen presenting cell
type that is involved in initiating T cell response?
a. Follicular dendritic cell
b. B lymphocyte
c. Dendritic cell
d. Macrophages
e. Cytokine stimulated endothelial cells
3. The memory T cells express which adhesion molecule (or
homing receptor) in order to migrate to mucosal lymphoid tissue of the
gastrointestinal tract?
a. Integrin a4b6
b. Integrin a4b7
c. madCAM-1
d. CLA-1
e. E-selectin
4. Activated or effector lymphocytes may be differentiated from
naive lymphocytes by which one of the following characteristics?
a. Increased expression of the homing receptor L-selectin
b. Increased expression of chemokine receptor CCR7
c. Increased expression of adhesion molecules, such as integrins and
CD44
d. Increased expression of chemokine receptor CXCR5
e. In humans, change of major CD45 isofom to CD45RA
5. Characteristics of naive lymphocytes include all the
following except:
a. Go stage of cell cycle
b. Not previously stimulated by antigen
c. 10-12 um in size with many specialized organelles
d. Large nucleus with dense heterochromatin
e. CD45 RA positive
6. Activated lymphocyte surface markers include all of the
following except:
a. High IL-2 receptor expression
b. High CD62L expression
c. High CD 44 expression
d. CD 45 RO expression
7. Which cell is not considered a type of macrophage?
a. Microglia
b. Osteoclast
c. Kuppfer cell
d. Basophil
8. Intraepidermal and intraepithelial lymphocytes of the skin
and gut
a. Are predominately CD 8+
b. All have the gamma delta TCR
c. Are predominately CD 4 +
d. Expresses a more restricted set of antigen receptors
e. A and D
9. Where does the differentiation of naive T cells in to
effector cells occur?
a. In the peripheral lymphoid organs
b. In the bone marrow
c. In the skin and mucous membranes
d. A and B
e. None of the above
10. What allows naive T lymphocytes to home to lymph nodes?
a. E- or P-selectin binding to its ligand on endothelial cells
b. Increased expression of CD40 ligand
c. L-selectin binding to its ligand on high endothelial venules
d. Increased expression of the CCR7 chemokine receptor
e. None of the above
11. In regard to the cutaneous immune system, which of the
following is false:
a. The skin is the largest organ in the body.
b. The skin is an important physical barrier between an organism and
its external environment.
c. Langerhans cells are the immature dendritic cells of the cutaneous
immune system.
d. Intraepidermal lymphocytes constitute only about 2 percent of the
skin-associated lymphocytes and the majority are CD4+ cells.
e. All of the above are true.
12. What proteins are expressed by stem cells prior to
differentiation?
a. CD19 and CD3
b. CD34 and Sca-1
c. CD3 and CD34
d. CD19 and Sca-1
e. CD2 and CD3
13. Which of the following is true regarding Helper T
lymphocytes?
a. They are essential stimuli for B cell growth and differentiation.
b. They have CD3+, CD4-, CD8+ as selected phenotype markers.
c. They make up less than 10 percent of the total lymphocytes in the
blood.
d. They are essential components in killing of virus-infected cells.
e. All of the above.
14. Naive B cells express:
a. IgM
b. IgA
c. IgG
d. IgE
15. The primary lymphoid follicle contains:
a. Dendritic cells
b. T cells
c. B cells
d. Red pulp
e. Kuppfer cells
16. The myeloid cell line includes all of the following except:
a. Eosinophils
b. NK cells
c. Neutrophils
d. Platelets
e. Basophills
17. Naive T cells express the following homing receptor:
a. CXCR5
b. PNAd
c. GlyCAM-1
d. L-Selectin
18. Endothelial cells express the following T cell homing
receptor:
a. VEGF
b. P-Selectin
c. CCR7
d. CLA-1
19. Which statement about memory T cells is false? p.23-24,
Table 2-3
a. They do not require antigen recognition for survival.
b. Memory B cells only express IgM or IgD on their surface.
c. Compared to naive t cells, memory T cells express higher levels of
adhension molecules like integrins and CD44.
d. Memory T cells express CD45RO where as naive T cells express
CD45RA.
e. Memory lymphocytes can be found in blood, mucosal tissues and lymph
nodes.
20. Which statement is false about lymph nodes? p.29-30, Fig.
2-11
a. B cells are located in germinal centers and T cells are located in
the cortex and between primary and secondary follicles
b. naive T cells and dendritic cells are chemoattracted to lymph nodes
via their chemokine receptor CCR7
c. naive B cells are chemoattracted to lymph nodes via their chemokine
receptor CXCR7
d. lymphotaxin, a cytokine produced in follicles, is important in
lymph node chemkine production to attract naive B cell and T cells
ANSWERS
1. C, page 17
2. C, page 25
3. A, page 37-38
4. C, page 24 Table
5. C, page 18 and table 2-3
6. B, table 2-3
7. D, Figure 2-4
8. E, page 31
9. A, page 37
10. C page 37
11. D page 32 (CD8+)
12. B page 26
13. A page 19
14. A page 23
15. A page 28
16. B page 27
17. D page 34-35
18. B page 37
19. B p23-24, Table 2-3
20. C p.29-30, Fig. 2-11 (false, correct answer is CXCR5)
March 3, 2004
With this issue,
we begin the Immunology Review Corner. During
the next several months, we will review the 5th edition of Cellular
and Molecular Immunology, edited by Abul K. Abbas and Andrew H.
Lichtman. We are starting with Chapter One and will work our way
through the text. This first section is essentially a short, basic
introduction. As we progress, the number of questions will increase
and become more complex. I would like to encourage everyone to join us
in learning immunology together, and if you have questions, please
send me an email:
warner.carr@hotmail.com.
Chapter 1 questions
1.
Which one the following is not part of the innate immune
system?
a. T lymphocytes
b. Epithelial barriers
c. NK cells
d. Complement
2. Transfer of maternal antibodies to the fetus is an example
of what type of immunity?
a. Active immunity
b. Passive immunity
c. Cell mediated immunity
d. Adaptive immunity
3. There are essentially 5 phases on the adaptive immune
response. Which of the following puts these phases in chronological
order from initiation to completion of the adaptive immune response?
a. Clonal expansion, differentiation, somatic hypermutation, memory,
apoptosis
b. Recognition, effector phase, elimination, memory, homeostasis
c. Recognition, activation, effector, decline, memory
d. Clonal expansion, differentiation, effector, homeostasis, apoptosis
4. Which of the following statements is false?
a. All the lymphocytes from an individual clone express receptors of
only one specificity.
b. Individual clones may respond to multiple antigens, thus providing
the immune system one mechanism for diversity.
c. Antigen-specific clones develop before and independent of exposure
to antigen.
d. All cells of an individual clone have the same receptors, which are
different from the receptors of other clones.
5. Which of the following is an example of a second signal?
a. Binding of microbial antigen to the TCR
b. A cytokine or accessory molecule that binds to its ligand on the
T-cell at the same time as TCR binding by antigen.
c. A second antigen binding to an adjacent TCR.
d. Re-exposure to an antigen and activation of a memory cell for the
second time.
6. Cardinal features of adaptive immune response include all
the following, EXCEPT?
a. Specificity and diversity
b. Memory
c. Nonreactive to self
d. Self-limitation
e. Pattern Recognition Molecules
7. Which of the following is NOT a feature of innate immunity?
a. Specificity is for structures shared by groups of related microbes
b. Diversity is limited and germline-encoded
c. Non-reactivity to self
d. Memory
e. Components include complement
Answers and corresponding references:
1. A, page 5
2. B, page 7
3. C, page 13
4. B, page 13
5. B, page 14
6. E, pages 9-10
7. D, Table 1-2 in page 5
February 18, 2004
Laboratory Diagnosis II
By Jay M. Portnoy, MD
1.
Which test is most appropriate for measuring total IgG in a
commercial lab?
a) Protein electrophoresis
b) Radial immunodiffusion
c) Nephelometry
d) Radioimmunoassay
e) Western Blot
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